hi to all,
I have some questions and remarks regarding to
SERVER_HOSTNAME =
BASE_SERVER_VHOST =
Let us assume, I setup a ispCP control server with these parameters:
ip: 100.100.100.100
name: server100
domain: company.com
Furthermore let us assume I'm going to create a customer on that system:
customer: company.com
As far as I can figure out the sense of this configure-vars is that BASE_SERVER_VHOST is only uses to create the 00-master config for the apache server.
Because the apache evaluate the 00-master config before its evaluates the ispcp-config file the server will answer request to
http://100.100.100.100/
and to
http://server100.company.com/
with the ispCP gui and it will answers requests to
http://www.company.com/
with the virtual web-site from the customer company.com.
So far, so nice. What I cant figure out finally is where SERVER_HOSTNAME will be used. I have some trouble with postfix, because ispCP configures postfix as follow:
myhostname = server100.company.com (MTA_HOSTNAME)
mydomain = company.com (MTA_LOCAL_DOMAIN)
myorigin = $myhostname
I guess ispCP setup derivates MTA_HOSTNAME and MTA_LOCAL_DOMAIN from SERVER_HOSTNAME ??
This configuration leads in problems receiving emails for the virtual domain company.com because postfix assumes that company.com ist the local domain for the server and not a virtual domain. so postfix looks up email-recipients in the local userdatabase (passwd) - not in the mailboxes.db
I edited the postfix config and changed mydomain to server100.company.com also, so all works fine know. But I dont know if ispCP will change this back on the next update and I dont know how to tell ispCP about the above configuration??
The correct unix-style configuration ist, that only user@hostname.domain.tld and not user@domain.tld email-addresses are looked up in the local userdatabase and as long as postfix treats user@domain.tld as local-host-user I guess mydomain must be set to the FQHN (full qualified host name).
So what do you think about this behavior?
maLLoc